Please understand, I’m not promoting the King James Version.

I’m saying fundamentalist Christians, or pretty much any other type of Christians, are making a mistake if they go down a rabbit hole and put this much weight on a single verse.
I get what you mean. I had to reread post #7. That is an important distinction between stable and stalls. I question this part though, "The stable contains eight or ten stalls." from the definition you cited. I can understand that's how it would work mathematically if we were to reconcile the two passages, but were there really 8 to 10 stalls in each stable?

Interestingly, the NIV Bible uses the number 4,000 for both passages.
1 King 4:26 26 Solomon had four[c] thousand stalls for chariot horses, and twelve thousand horses.[d] (NIV)

2 Chronicles 9:25vSolomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horses,[i] which he kept in the chariot cities and also with him in Jerusalem. (NIV)

The footnote for the 1 King passage (refer to here) mentions that the number for is found in some Septuagint texts, while in the Hebrew text, the number forty is mentioned. I'm more inclined to believe that the discrepancy is due to differences in the manuscripts than on the difference between the definitions for stable and stalls.
 
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Interestingly, the NIV Bible uses the number 4,000 for both passages.
Yes, it is interesting that the NIV tries to “clean up” this problem. Only letting the controversy remain in a footnote.

* And to further thicken the plot, some evangelical Christians don’t like the NIV because it uses gender-inclusive language and, for some people, that smacks too much of political correctness.

Although there’s a very good case for using the language of 2022, and not trying to continue using the English of 1612 or whatever specific date it was that the King James Bible was first written.
 
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