Does Genesis 2:24 go against polygamy?

[AgnosticBoy]

I've debated polygamy a few times and there are a lot of different topics and biblical passages that can be used for or against it. But I want to stick to the message in Genesis 2:24. Does it go against polygamy?

 

[TracyRN]

Polygamy was allowed by Moses but it was not part of God's purpose for marriage. In the New Testament, Jesus restored God's original plan for marriage. This is covered in Matthew 19. The Church also reaffirms this teaching Catechism of the Catholic Church...

1644 The love of the spouses requires, of its very nature, the unity and indissolubility of the spouses' community of persons, which embraces their entire life: "so they are no longer two, but one flesh."153 They "are called to grow continually in their communion through day-to-day fidelity to their marriage promise of total mutual self-giving."154 This human communion is confirmed, purified, and completed by communion in Jesus Christ, given through the sacrament of Matrimony. It is deepened by lives of the common faith and by the Eucharist received together.

1645 "The unity of marriage, distinctly recognized by our Lord, is made clear in the equal personal dignity which must be accorded to man and wife in mutual and unreserved affection."155 Polygamy is contrary to conjugal love which is undivided and exclusive.156

 

[AgnosticBoy]

Polygamy was allowed by Moses but it was not part of God's purpose for marriage. In the New Testament, Jesus restored God's original plan for marriage. This is covered in Matthew 19. The Church also reaffirms this teaching Catechism of the Catholic Church...

I'd rather keep the discussion limited to Genesis 2:24, or more specifically, the part about the "two becoming one flesh". Part of your source from the Catholic Catechism explains what two becoming one flesh involves but I disagree with that description. For instance, your source brings up "total mutual self-giving" but that doesn't square with Christian Scripture. Here's one area:

Ephesians 5:24

Now as the church submits to Christ, so also wives should submit to their husbands in everything.

This passage does not say that the husband should also submit to the wife in everything or some other mutual language. The only talk of mutuality I remember is regarding fulfilling the sexual needs (1 Corinthians 7) but even that can work with polygamy since a man can possibly fulfill the sexual needs of more than one person. But reading the context of 1 Corinthians 7:1-6 I see that the apostle Paul says that he's not offering any command from God, which means that it doesn't have to be followed.