Source: https://www.catholic.com/magazine/online-edition/does-the-bible-permit-polygamy
My response will be in the next post. I welcome all others to chime in.
Polygamy was immoral according to a Catholic author. My response to this.
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My response will be in the next post. I welcome all others to chime in.
From the above article:
I'll illustrate this point with two scenarios to show that polygamy is not inherently bad. Scenario 1 is a married man that takes another wife without first telling his first wife. He then starts to neglect his first wife for his new squeeze. Scenario 2 is a married man talks with his first wife about adding another wife. He then doesn't do so unless his wife is onboard. The BIG difference between the two scenarios is CONSENT which was totally lacking in biblical marriages, both monogamous and polygamous.
Responding to another aspect, the author says that the Bible doesn't "say" that polygamy is wrong but shows it. I think it shows that polygamy is moral based on God's actions which are morality in effect since He is perfectly moral. In Genesis 29:30 to Gen. 30 , God's concern is that Jacob doesn't love TWO wives (Gen. 29:31, Jacob was already in love with Rachel) . I would think God's actions, desires, concern, thinking would all be moral. But even if that's in doubt, God's actions in those passages further support that He was okay with polygamy because he helped TWO wives become impregnated by ONE man (Gen. 30:22; Gen. 29:31).
So in conclusion, even if the Bible doesn't explicitly say that polygamous marriages are moral, but they show it through God's actions. I could also bring up other points that indicate that polygamy was moral, like going on the definition of adultery itself in the OT, but my points above are sufficient enough.
In Matthew 19:3-6, a man and woman becomes one flesh, but this does not answer what this involves and if it can occur more than once in a lifetime. Obviously, if a wife dies, can't the man then become one flesh with another woman? Is that bond irreversible that that couldn't happen? If not, then why assume that it's so irreversible that it can't happen as at two different times between two living women, as in husband becomes one flesh with wife #1, and one flesh with wife #2? Indeed, biblical polygamy was not practiced as one big marriage involving 3 or more people, but rather as multiple marriages with two people in each marriage. I like that the Mormons call it "plural" marriage.
And lastly, in 1 Corinthians 7:2. Paul was acknowledged that some of his advice was his own and not a command from God. He was also giving one way to avoid sexual immorality. That didn't require giving a comprehensive list of allowable marriages.
Sure, every instance of polygamy practice in the Bible had problems. But does that make all polygamous marriages immoral or is the issue just the way it is practiced (which means it can be practiced different ways, good and bad)? The author doesn't consider this point. He points to bad examples and reasons from that while failing to show a logical reason as to why every polygamous marriage would end up the same way.
I'll illustrate this point with two scenarios to show that polygamy is not inherently bad. Scenario 1 is a married man that takes another wife without first telling his first wife. He then starts to neglect his first wife for his new squeeze. Scenario 2 is a married man talks with his first wife about adding another wife. He then doesn't do so unless his wife is onboard. The BIG difference between the two scenarios is CONSENT which was totally lacking in biblical marriages, both monogamous and polygamous.
Responding to another aspect, the author says that the Bible doesn't "say" that polygamy is wrong but shows it. I think it shows that polygamy is moral based on God's actions which are morality in effect since He is perfectly moral. In Genesis 29:30 to Gen. 30 , God's concern is that Jacob doesn't love TWO wives (Gen. 29:31, Jacob was already in love with Rachel) . I would think God's actions, desires, concern, thinking would all be moral. But even if that's in doubt, God's actions in those passages further support that He was okay with polygamy because he helped TWO wives become impregnated by ONE man (Gen. 30:22; Gen. 29:31).
So in conclusion, even if the Bible doesn't explicitly say that polygamous marriages are moral, but they show it through God's actions. I could also bring up other points that indicate that polygamy was moral, like going on the definition of adultery itself in the OT, but my points above are sufficient enough.
To the contrary, Ezekiel 23:1-6 and Jeremiah 3:6-10 God portrays himself as having two wives. At that time, Israel was divided into TWO kingdoms, the northern kingdom - Israel and the southern kingdom which was Judah.
In Matthew 5:27-28, Jesus does not specify the marital status of the man that's lusting nor of the woman that's being lusted after. I think that is important, otherwise having a single man lusting after a single woman would also be called adultery, and we know that doesn't make sense. That would be fornication, and not adultery since none of the two are married.
In Matthew 19:3-6, a man and woman becomes one flesh, but this does not answer what this involves and if it can occur more than once in a lifetime. Obviously, if a wife dies, can't the man then become one flesh with another woman? Is that bond irreversible that that couldn't happen? If not, then why assume that it's so irreversible that it can't happen as at two different times between two living women, as in husband becomes one flesh with wife #1, and one flesh with wife #2? Indeed, biblical polygamy was not practiced as one big marriage involving 3 or more people, but rather as multiple marriages with two people in each marriage. I like that the Mormons call it "plural" marriage.
And lastly, in 1 Corinthians 7:2. Paul was acknowledged that some of his advice was his own and not a command from God. He was also giving one way to avoid sexual immorality. That didn't require giving a comprehensive list of allowable marriages.
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Scooter
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Jesus made it clear that from the beginning, God’s intention was marriage to be between one man and one woman. Just because God allowed multiple wives does not mean He endorsed the practice. Matt.19:4-5 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
@Scooter
If this was the only thing God said about marriage in the Bible, then I'd agree with you. It would mean that there's only one male and female in a marriage and if you really want to follow what it says, then we could even say that the man can only have one marriage in his lifetime since the passage only talks about one marriage. But we do know that God had plenty of other things to say about marriages, including when you can marry again (which includes widows, polygamy, etc). In those other passages, we find out that marrying after a partner dies is allowed. We also know that a man can start additional marriages while still being married to his 2nd wife.
If this was the only thing God said about marriage in the Bible, then I'd agree with you. It would mean that there's only one male and female in a marriage and if you really want to follow what it says, then we could even say that the man can only have one marriage in his lifetime since the passage only talks about one marriage. But we do know that God had plenty of other things to say about marriages, including when you can marry again (which includes widows, polygamy, etc). In those other passages, we find out that marrying after a partner dies is allowed. We also know that a man can start additional marriages while still being married to his 2nd wife.
Scooter
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Divorce and remarriage was allowed under Jewish law but that was not God’s plan. Nowhere in Scripture do we read of God encouraging multiple wives. God allows people to lie and steal, but He does not support such actions. The same applies to marriage. God’s intent has always been one man and one woman for marriage.
Not exactly encouraging in the sense of telling someone to take two wives, but the Bible shows that God was okay with it in other ways.
I explained this by referencing the story about Jacob and his wives and how God intervened.
You're forgetting that exception clause for divorce (except for sexual immorality) found in Matthew. That was part of Jesus's teaching.
Matthew 19:8-9
8 Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. 9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
Scooter
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Just because God allows something does not mean He’s ok with it. Do you believe God is ok with abortion? Do you believe He is ok with genocide?
No, I didn’t forget. But look at your own response: Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning.
God’s plan from the beginning was for one man to be married to one woman.
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