Does Leviticus 18:22 prohibit same-sex acts in some cases or all cases?

[AgnosticBoy]

I watched a debate a few years ago regarding if the Bible allows homosexuality. The person on the affirmative side argued that homosexuality was allowed in certain cases. When that person covered Leviticus 18:22, he said that it only referred to homosexual behavior as part of temple prostitution. Outside of that, same-sex acts were allowed.

Here's Leviticus 18:22:

“‘Do not have sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman; that is detestable.

Here's one online source that explains this view (re: Leviticus chapters 18 and 20):

The chapters that contain these verses are clearly identified as speaking against practices involved in cultic idol worship. The entire passages are generally accepted as not applying to modern Christian life.

The text itself gives us a big clue as to the intended meaning. Three different times we are specifically told that the rules set forth in chapters 18 and 20 are meant to prevent the Israelites from doing what the Egyptians and Canaanites did. The term Canaanites refers to the group of nations who lived in the land into which the Israelites migrated when they left Egypt. It follows, therefore, if we can determine what type of homosexual behavior was common among the Canaanites and Egyptians, we will better understand what these verses were meant to prohibit.

Biblical historians tell us the Canaanite religions surrounding the Israelites at the time of Leviticus often included fertility rites consisting of sexual rituals. These rituals were thought to bring the blessing of the god or goddess on crop and livestock production. During the rituals, whole families, including husbands, wives, mothers, fathers, sons, daughters, cousins, aunts and uncles would sometimes have sex. Also included was sex with temple prostitutes. In short, every kind of sexual practice imaginable was performed at these rituals, including homosexual sex.

This is what was going on in Canaan and Egypt at the time the Levitical rules were announced — homosexual temple prostitution. And as already noted, Leviticus 18 and 20 specifically say they were written to address pagan religious practices. Leviticus 18 begins with the admonition, “You shall not do as they do in the land of Egypt, where you lived, and you shall not do as they do in the land of Canaan, where I am bringing you.” (18:3) Chapter 20 is even more specific, beginning with an injunction against the pagan practices associated with a god named Molech. And both chapters include long lists of sexual practices common in the cultic rituals we mentioned above. However, neither of them speaks to the question of whether two people of the same sex can live in loving relationship with the blessing of God.

Source: https://www.mccnova.com/?page_id=2616

cont'd from the same above article:

It simply is not reasonable to believe the author of Leviticus intended to prohibit a form of homosexual relationship that did not exist at the time. When read in textual and historical context, the prohibitions in Leviticus 18 and 20 are clearly directed at homosexual temple prostitution, and that is how they should be applied.

Some people may object, saying, “But if you ignore the context and just read the words of Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 in black and white, they appear to prohibit all sex between men, not just sex in pagan rituals.” But that is the whole point: The meaning of words depends on context. Remember, the words of 1 Corinthians 11 also appear to require long hair and head coverings for all women in all circumstances. But, because we have studied the context, we know that is not what was meant. A text taken out of context is pretext. Let’s apply the same common-sense rule here.

The Leviticus passages were clearly written in the context of pagan religious ritual. Since we are not bringing a question about the appropriateness of cultic sex practices for modern Christians, we can safely set aside these clobber passages.

Source: same as above

For Debate
Is the view from the article valid? Is homosexuality allowed just as long as it didn't involve temple rituals/sex that the Canaanites engaged in for their gods?

 

[Scooter]

Homosexuality is forbidden in the Bible in all cases. No where in Scripture does it indicate only homosexuality in temple prostitution is sinful. Look at the verse you quoted: "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination." There is no exception to this law. Look at other scriptures that condemn homosexuality from both the Old and New Testaments:
Leviticus 20:13 If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.
Romans 1:26-28 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet. And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;

Jesus tells us that God's plan from the beginning is for sex to be between one man and one woman: Matthew 19:5 "And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?" Jesus did not say it was ok for a man to be joined with another man or a woman to be joined with another woman.

Also, the Bible declares that those who engage in homosexuality will not make it into Heaven: 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God." The Greek word for "abusers of themselves with mankind" is the word arsenokoítēs. Most newer translations of the Bible translate that word to "homosexual". Again, no reference to any temple prostitution.

Finally, I would invite anyone to provide just one example of God blessing a homosexual relationship in the Bible. IMO, people who try to justify homosexuality in the Bible are simply trying to justify sin. Probably, because they themselves are involved in it or they have someone close to them involved in it.

 

[AgnosticBoy]

Homosexuality is forbidden in the Bible in all cases. No where in Scripture does it indicate only homosexuality in temple prostitution is sinful. Look at the verse you quoted: "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination." There is no exception to this law. Look at other scriptures that condemn homosexuality from both the Old and New Testaments:
Leviticus 20:13 If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.

I think that's the most reasonable conclusion. One reason is because of the rest of Leviticus 18. I couldn't imagine the following passage only applying in certain cases or because of some temple ritual:

Leviticus 18:20
20 “‘Do not have sexual relations with your neighbor’s wife and defile yourself with her.

The rest of the passages in that chapter brings up incest and bestiality. I would think those are also forbidden in all cases.

 

[AgnosticBoy]

Jesus tells us that God's plan from the beginning is for sex to be between one man and one woman: Matthew 19:5 "And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?" Jesus did not say it was ok for a man to be joined with another man or a woman to be joined with another woman.

I think that is a good point to show that God would not have been for same-sex relationships, even if they were in a loving relationship.

IMO, people who try to justify homosexuality in the Bible are simply trying to justify sin. Probably, because they themselves are involved in it or they have someone close to them involved in it.

I think that might be the case for a lot of Christians. Personally, I see nothing wrong with homosexuality. I think even non-Christian LGBT people try to say that God is okay with them because Christianity is (or was) a big obstacle for gay marriage.

 

[Scooter]

Given what the Bible teaches I don’t see how anyone can honestly suggest God is ok with homosexuality. But everyone is entitled to their own opinion. They just can’t use the Bible to prop up their position.

 

[AgnosticBoy]

No where in Scripture does it indicate only homosexuality in temple prostitution is sinful.

I think those that say otherwise get that idea from Leviticus 18:3 and 20:3,

Leviticus 18:3 You must not do as they do in Egypt, where you used to live, and you must not do as they do in the land of Canaan, where I am bringing you. Do not follow their practices.

Leviticus 20:3 You must not live according to the customs of the nations I am going to drive out before you. Because they did all these things, I abhorred them.

Even these passages don't mention anything about temple rituals involving sex but it is inferred from the historico-cultural context of the Canaanites. The article I brought up in the OP elaborates on that:

Biblical historians tell us the Canaanite religions surrounding the Israelites at the time of Leviticus often included fertility rites consisting of sexual rituals. These rituals were thought to bring the blessing of the god or goddess on crop and livestock production. During the rituals, whole families, including husbands, wives, mothers, fathers, sons, daughters, cousins, aunts and uncles would sometimes have sex. Also included was sex with temple prostitutes. In short, every kind of sexual practice imaginable was performed at these rituals, including homosexual sex.

Even if we go by context, I question how much of Canaanite living applies in the thinking of the biblical writers. Clearly some of it does. But did the biblical writers care about the temple part just because the Canaanites did all of this in a temple or as part of rituals to their gods? Or was the focus just the same-sex acts? What if the Canaanites committed all of these rituals and sex acts on the weekends. Should we then say that the Jews were also against same-sex acts done on the weekends? What about the good acts that the Canaanites might have done? Were the Jews against those?

In my view, these are the problems arising from taking in context. It's a problem of knowing of how much of the historical context to apply, and in this case I think its absurd to assume that the Jews were concerned with every aspect of the Canaanites as opposed to just some specific acts.

 

[Scooter]

Nothing in the Biblical context refers to homosexual practices in religious rituals. The author of the article simply inserted that on his own. Now, these people may have very well been involved in that, but the Bible does not reference religious practices at all. Look at the two verses you quoted. Neither of them reference religious practices. Apparently, the Canaanites and Egyptians were practicing homosexuality in their everyday life and God said that was wrong so the Israelites were not to imitate them. So again, I don’t see how anyone can justify homosexuality from the Bible.